Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 10:20
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If Jesus was crucified by Governor Pontius Pilate, why does the Quran deny his death?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.